Daily MCQ Paper — 18 March 2026 - IPM Gurukul

Daily MCQ Paper — 18 March 2026

IPM GURUKUL

Daily MCQ Practice Paper

Date: 18 March 2026 Total Questions: 50
Time Allowed: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 50
Marking: +1 for correct, No negative marking

Student Name:  

Batch:      Date:  

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. Circle or mark ONE option (A/B/C/D) for each question
  2. MANDATORY: Write your justification (2 lines) below each question
  3. After completing, scan ALL pages into a single PDF file
  4. Upload the PDF at: ipmgurukul.com/courses/daily-mcq-practice
  5. Fill the Answer Grid on the last page — this is checked first

Legal Reasoning (विधिक तर्कशक्ति) [Q1 – Q10]
In the landmark case of Donoghue v Stevenson (1932), the House of Lords established the ‘neighbour principle’ in tort law. The court held that a manufacturer owes a duty of care to the ultimate consumer of a product, even if there is no direct contractual relationship between them. The principle states that one must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions that can reasonably be foreseen to injure one’s ‘neighbour’ — persons so closely and directly affected by the act that they ought reasonably to be in contemplation. This case gave birth to the modern law of negligence.
Q1. According to the passage, the ‘neighbour principle’ primarily deals with which branch of law?
A Contract Law
B Criminal Law
C Tort Law (Negligence)
D Constitutional Law

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q2. In Donoghue v Stevenson, what was the core legal issue addressed by the House of Lords?
A Breach of contract between buyer and seller
B Duty of care owed by a manufacturer to the ultimate consumer
C Criminal liability of a shopkeeper
D Constitutional validity of consumer protection laws

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q3. A pharmaceutical company manufactures a medicine that causes harm to a patient due to a manufacturing defect. The patient had no direct contract with the company (purchased through a pharmacy). Which legal principle from the passage would most directly apply?
A Privity of contract
B Caveat emptor
C Neighbour principle (duty of care in tort)
D Strict liability under criminal law

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

The Supreme Court of India in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v Union of India (2017) unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. The nine-judge bench overruled earlier decisions in M.P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962) which had held that privacy was not a fundamental right. The court held that privacy is intrinsic to life and liberty and encompasses the right of individuals to make decisions about their personal life without state interference.
Q4. The Puttaswamy judgment recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A Article 19
B Article 14
C Article 21
D Article 32

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q5. Which earlier Supreme Court decisions were overruled by the nine-judge bench in the Puttaswamy case?
A Maneka Gandhi v UOI and Kesavananda Bharati
B M.P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962)
C ADM Jabalpur and Golak Nath
D Minerva Mills and Indira Gandhi Election case

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q6. Based on the passage, the right to privacy primarily encompasses which of the following?
A Only protection from unlawful detention
B Absolute immunity from all government surveillance
C Right of individuals to make personal decisions without state interference
D Right to free speech and expression

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q7. Principle: A contract is void if its consideration or object is unlawful. Fact: Ram agrees to pay Shyam Rs. 50,000 to commit theft on his behalf. Shyam accepts the money but refuses to perform. Which statement is legally correct?
A Shyam is liable for breach of contract and must return the money
B Ram can sue Shyam for specific performance in a civil court
C The contract is void; neither party can claim relief in a court of law
D Ram can claim damages for Shyam’s refusal to perform

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q8. Principle: Under IPC Section 300, culpable homicide is murder if the act is done with the intention of causing death OR with knowledge that the act is imminently dangerous and must in all probability cause death. Fact: A fires a gun into a dense crowd, knowing it is highly probable someone will be killed. One person dies. What is the most appropriate charge?
A Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
B Murder under Section 300 IPC
C Causing grievous hurt
D Rash and negligent act under Section 304A

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q9. Principle: Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a marriage is void ab initio if either party has a living spouse at the time of marriage (bigamy). Fact: Arjun marries Priya while his first wife Kavita is still alive. Arjun had informed Priya about Kavita before the wedding. Which statement is correct?
A The marriage is valid as Priya gave informed consent
B The marriage is voidable at the option of Priya
C The marriage is void ab initio regardless of Priya’s knowledge
D Arjun is only liable civilly, not under any criminal provision

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q10. Principle: Res ipsa loquitur (the thing speaks for itself) is a tort doctrine where negligence is presumed from the very nature of the accident, without requiring direct proof. Fact: After a knee surgery, an X-ray reveals a surgical clamp left inside the patient’s body. The hospital claims no negligence occurred. Can the patient succeed in a negligence claim without direct proof?
A No — the patient must always prove specific negligent acts
B Yes — under res ipsa loquitur, the very fact implies negligence
C No — medical professionals have special immunity under Indian law
D Yes — but only if the patient identifies which surgeon was responsible

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Logical Reasoning (तार्किक तर्कशक्ति) [Q11 – Q20]
Environmental activists argue that the government should impose a complete ban on single-use plastics to combat pollution. They contend that plastic waste is devastating marine ecosystems and contributing significantly to soil contamination. However, manufacturers counter that such a ban would lead to massive unemployment in the plastics industry and force consumers to rely on alternatives that are either more expensive or less hygienic. Some economists suggest a middle path: imposing a hefty tax on single-use plastics rather than an outright ban, to discourage use while allowing a gradual transition.
Q11. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the manufacturers’ argument that a plastic ban would cause massive unemployment?
A Marine biodiversity has declined by 40% in areas with high plastic pollution
B Several countries that imposed plastic bans saw no significant increase in unemployment
C Plastic alternatives are currently twice as expensive as single-use plastics
D The government has not announced any support for displaced workers

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q12. The economists’ proposal of a plastic tax rather than a ban primarily assumes which of the following?
A Manufacturers would shut down entirely if a tax is imposed
B Consumers will reduce plastic use if it becomes more expensive
C A tax on plastics would generate no revenue for the government
D Single-use plastics are harmless in small quantities

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q13. Which of the following most strengthens the environmentalists’ case for a complete ban?
A Plastic manufacturing has grown 15% in the last decade
B Scientists confirm that plastic pollutants enter the human food chain via marine life
C Some alternative materials also have negative environmental side-effects
D The plastics industry contributes 2% to national GDP

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q14. Statements: All lawyers are graduates. Some graduates are politicians. Which conclusion definitely follows?
A All politicians are lawyers
B Some lawyers are politicians
C No lawyer is a politician
D Some graduates are lawyers

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q15. Statements: No doctor is uneducated. All uneducated people are poor. Which conclusion definitely follows?
A No doctor is poor
B All poor people are uneducated
C Some poor people are not doctors
D All doctors are wealthy

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q16. Analogy — Judge : Courtroom :: Doctor : ?
A Hospital
B Medicine
C Patient
D Diagnosis

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q17. Statement: ‘Parents should monitor their children’s use of social media to prevent cyberbullying.’ Which assumption is implicit in this statement?
A Social media companies are incapable of preventing cyberbullying
B Every child using social media will be bullied
C Parental monitoring can help reduce the risk of cyberbullying
D Children should be completely banned from social media

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q18. Statement: ‘Countries with higher literacy rates tend to have lower crime rates.’ Which conclusion is most valid?
A Education directly causes crime reduction
B Low crime rate is the only benefit of education
C There is a positive correlation between literacy and lower crime rates
D All illiterate people are criminals

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q19. Statement: ‘The court held that the right to a fair trial cannot be waived, even by the accused himself.’ Which is the most fundamental assumption underlying this statement?
A The accused is always presumed guilty
B The right to a fair trial is a fundamental right that transcends individual preference
C Courts have absolute and unlimited power over criminal proceedings
D The accused is necessarily unaware of their legal rights

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q20. Statement: ‘Students who regularly practice mock tests tend to perform better in competitive examinations.’ Which conclusion most validly follows?
A Every student who takes mock tests will crack competitive exams
B Students who skip mock tests will always fail
C Regular mock test practice has a positive correlation with exam performance
D Mock tests are the only effective method to prepare for competitive exams

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

English Language (अंग्रेज़ी भाषा) [Q21 – Q30]
The rule of law is the foundation upon which democratic societies are built. It demands that every individual, institution, and entity — public and private, including the state itself — is accountable to laws that are publicly promulgated, equally enforced, and independently adjudicated. The concept, while ancient in origin, was given modern expression by A.V. Dicey in his 1885 work ‘Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution.’ Dicey articulated three pillars: supremacy of law, equality before the law, and the predominance of legal spirit. Contemporary scholars, however, argue that mere formal equality before the law is insufficient without substantive justice — laws must not only be equal in application but must also be just in their content.
Q21. According to the passage, who gave the rule of law its modern expression?
A John Rawls
B Jeremy Bentham
C A.V. Dicey
D H.L.A. Hart

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q22. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of Dicey’s three pillars of the rule of law?
A Supremacy of law
B Equality before the law
C Separation of powers
D Predominance of legal spirit

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q23. What is the main contention of contemporary scholars as mentioned in the passage?
A Dicey’s concept of rule of law is entirely outdated and irrelevant
B Formal equality before the law is insufficient without substantive justice in the law’s content
C The rule of law should apply only to public institutions and not private entities
D Equality before the law means identical treatment in all situations without exception

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q24. In the passage, the word ‘promulgated’ most closely means:
A Strictly enforced by the police
B Officially made known to the public
C Debated and passed in parliament
D Subject to judicial review by courts

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q25. Choose the synonym of AMELIORATE:
A Worsen
B Improve
C Maintain
D Confuse

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q26. Choose the antonym of PERFIDIOUS:
A Treacherous
B Cunning
C Loyal
D Deceptive

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q27. Choose the grammatically correct sentence:
A Neither the judge nor the lawyers was present in court.
B Neither the judge nor the lawyers were present in court.
C Neither the judge nor the lawyers is present in court.
D Neither the judge nor the lawyers being present in court.

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q28. Fill in the blank: The new legislation ________ the rights of workers by mandating minimum wages and safe working conditions.
A undermines
B safeguards
C ignores
D restricts

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q29. Arrange sentences P, Q, R, S in the correct logical order to form a coherent paragraph about habeas corpus: P: The court examines whether the detention is lawful. Q: A writ of habeas corpus is filed on behalf of a detained person. R: If found unlawful, the court orders immediate release. S: The detaining authority is asked to produce the person before the court.
A Q → S → P → R
B S → Q → P → R
C P → Q → S → R
D Q → P → S → R

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q30. Identify the grammatically correct sentence:
A The committee have submitted their report on time.
B The committee has submitted their report on time.
C The committee has submitted its report on time.
D The committee have submitted its report on time.

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Current Affairs / GK (सामयिक घटनाक्रम) [Q31 – Q40]
Q31. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted the words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
A 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
B 44th Amendment Act, 1978
C 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
D 73rd Amendment Act, 1992

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q32. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaced which earlier legislation?
A Consumer Protection Act, 1986
B Consumer Protection Act, 1990
C Trade Practices Act, 1984
D Sale of Goods Act, 1930

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q33. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India under Article 32 relates to:
A Appeals from High Courts
B Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
C Advisory jurisdiction on presidential references
D Election disputes of the President and Vice President

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q34. The International Court of Justice (ICJ), the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, is located in:
A Geneva, Switzerland
B Brussels, Belgium
C The Hague, Netherlands
D New York, USA

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q35. The Nobel Peace Prize for 2024 was awarded to:
A Malala Yousafzai
B Nihon Hidankyo (Japanese atomic bomb survivors’ organisation)
C Narges Mohammadi
D Ales Bialiatski

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q36. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code, notably added a new specific provision on:
A Sedition (which was retained from IPC)
B Organised crime and terrorism
C Kidnapping for ransom
D Cattle theft

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q37. The doctrine of Judicial Review in India is primarily derived from:
A Article 13 read with Articles 32 and 226
B Article 368 alone
C Article 19 read with Article 21
D Article 356 read with Article 365

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q38. How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed under Part III of the Indian Constitution?
A 5
B 6
C 7
D 8

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q39. The ‘One Nation One Subscription’ (ONOS) scheme launched by the Government of India provides:
A A single SIM card valid across all mobile networks
B Unified railway ticketing across all booking platforms
C Free access to international scientific and research journals for Indian institutions
D A single health insurance card for all government employees

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q40. The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 primarily deals with:
A Cybersecurity of government networks and defence infrastructure
B Protection of personal data of individuals and regulation of data fiduciaries
C Licensing of internet service providers in India
D Regulation and takedown of harmful content on social media platforms

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Quantitative Techniques (मात्रात्मक तकनीक) [Q41 – Q50]
Q41. In a state election, Candidate A received 55% of the total votes cast, while Candidate B received the rest. If the total votes cast were 80,000, by how many votes did Candidate A win?
A 6,000
B 8,000
C 10,000
D 12,000

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q42. A student scored 432 marks out of 600 in an examination. If the passing mark is 75%, by what percentage did the student fall short of the passing mark?
A 3%
B 4%
C 5%
D 6%

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q43. The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 3:2. If there are 40 students in total, how many are girls?
A 12
B 16
C 20
D 24

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q44. Three friends A, B, and C invest Rs. 12,000, Rs. 16,000, and Rs. 20,000 respectively in a business. If the total profit at the end of the year is Rs. 24,000, what is B’s share of the profit?
A Rs. 6,000
B Rs. 7,200
C Rs. 8,000
D Rs. 9,600

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q45. A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs. 500 and sells it for Rs. 600. What is the profit percentage?
A 15%
B 20%
C 25%
D 16.67%

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q46. A trader marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and then offers a discount of 20% on the marked price. What is his net profit percentage?
A 10%
B 12%
C 14%
D 20%

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

The table below shows the number of students enrolled in five IPM coaching centres (A, B, C, D, E) in 2025:

Centre A: 450 students
Centre B: 380 students
Centre C: 520 students
Centre D: 290 students
Centre E: 360 students
Total: 2,000 students

Refer to this data to answer Questions 47–49.

Q47. What is the total number of students enrolled across all five coaching centres?
A 1,900
B 1,950
C 2,000
D 2,100

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q48. Centre C’s enrollment is what percentage of the total enrollment? (Round to the nearest whole number)
A 24%
B 25%
C 26%
D 27%

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q49. If Centre A’s enrollment increases by 20% next year and all other centres remain unchanged, what will be the new total enrollment?
A 2,080
B 2,090
C 2,100
D 2,110

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q50. Find the missing number in the series: 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ?
A 40
B 43
C 45
D 47

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

ANSWER GRID — Fill this for quick evaluation

Mark your answers clearly. This grid is checked first by the AI evaluator.

Q A B C D   Q A B C D
1   26
2   27
3   28
4   29
5   30
6   31
7   32
8   33
9   34
10   35
11   36
12   37
13   38
14   39
15   40
16   41
17   42
18   43
19   44
20   45
21   46
22   47
23   48
24   49
25   50

Student Signature: _________________    Date: _________________